Updated NCLEX NCLEX-RN Dumps – Check Free NCLEX-RN Exam Dumps (2024)
Updated NCLEX-RN exam with NCLEX Real Exam Questions
NCLEX-RN exam is computer-adaptive, meaning that the questions presented to each candidate are tailored to their individual performance. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to think critically and make sound clinical judgments in a variety of nursing situations. NCLEX-RN exam covers a broad range of nursing concepts including health promotion, disease prevention, patient care management, pharmacology, and more. The NCLEX-RN exam is a challenging test, and candidates should prepare thoroughly, as the exam is a critical step towards obtaining a nursing license.
Get to know about the how to prepare for NCLEX-RN Exam
The key to success in NCLEX-RN exam is to know your stuff! Thats why we have provided a NCLEX-RN Dumps to help you prepare for the exam. The course includes NCLEX-RN study guide, NCLEX-RN sample papers, NCLEX-RN flashcards, and the latest NCLEX-RN practice questions. You will be able to pass your NCLEX-RN exam using our products and materials. Guaranteed Successin NCLEX-RN exam is possible if you use our reliable products. Coupon offer is the best way to save on our products. Our products are very affordable. High marks VCE exam simulator are the best source for NCLEX-RN test preparation, rn real exam questions bank and nclex-rn practice test. Refund policy is the most important thing when we talk about reliability. Register to download the product and take the exam.
NEW QUESTION # 64
An 82-year-old former restaurant owner walks to the nursing station and states, "I have to go. The restaurant opens at 11 am." Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?
- A. "It is snowing outside. The restaurant is closed."
- B. "You once owned a restaurant. Tell me about it."
- C. "You are in the hospital now. Calm down."
- D. "Go back to your room. You do not own a restaurant."
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A)
This response cuts off communication with the client. It does not address her feelings.
(B)
Reality orientation frequently does not work alone. Feelings must be addressed. Telling a client to calm down is frequently ineffective. (C) Reminiscence is used here to reorient and recall past pleasant events. Talking about the restaurant will allay anxiety. (D) This response may confirm to the client that she indeed does still own a restaurant, buying into her confusion. Her feelings and anxiety require nursing intervention.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A 2-year-old boy is in the hospital outpatient department for observation after falling out of his crib and hitting his head. The nurse calls the physician to report:
- A. Pulse fell from 102 to 96
- B. Temperature rose to 102_F rectally
- C. Evidence of perineal irritation
- D. Pulse increased from 96 to 102
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Perineal irritation needs to be addressed, but it is probably not necessary to call the physician. (B) This fall in pulse rate remains within normal limits and is probably insignificant. It is important to monitor for continued change. (C) This rise in pulse rate is probably not significant, but it is important to monitor for continued change. (D) This temperature is above normal limits and needs medical investigation. It may or may not be related to the head injury.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A client's record from the ED indicates that she overdosed on phenelzine sulfate (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. Which diet would be the most appropriate at this time?
- A. Tyramine-free
- B. High carbohydrate, low cholesterol
- C. 1 g sodium
- D. High protein, high carbohydrate
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) There are no data to support the need for increased carbohydrates or decreased cholesterol in the diet. (B) There is no data to support the need for increased protein or increased carbohydrates in the diet. (C) There is no assessment or laboratory data indicating that sodium should be restricted in the diet. (D) Tyramine is an amino acid activated by MAO in the liver and intestinal wall. It is released as proteins are hydrolyzed through aging, pickling, smoking, or spoilage of foods. When MAO is inhibited, tyramine levels rise, stimulating the adrenergic system to release large amounts of norepinephrine, which can produce a hypertensive crisis.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A 42-year-old client presents with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. She has become increasingly restless and verbally argumentative, and her speech has become pressured. She is exhibiting signs of:
- A. Psychotic ideation
- B. Agitation
- C. Anhedonia
- D. Depression
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Signs of depression would include withdrawal, sadness, morbid thoughts, insomnia, early awakening, etc. (B) These clinical features are classic signs of agitation. (C) Psychotic ideation includes delusional thoughts, bizarre behavior, disorganized thinking, etc. (D) Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure.
NEW QUESTION # 68
The cardiac client who exhibits the symptoms of disorientation, lethargy, and seizures may be exhibiting a toxic reaction to:
- A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
- B. Quinidine gluconate or sulfate (Quinaglute,Quinidex)
- C. Nitroglycerin IV (Tridil)
- D. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) Side effects of digoxin include headache, hypotension, AV block, blurred vision, and yellow-green halos. (B) Side effects of lidocaine include heart block, headache, dizziness, confusion, tremor, lethargy, and convulsions.
(C) Side effects of quinidine include heart block, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and respiratory depression.
(D) Side effects of nitroglycerin include postural hypotension, headache, dizziness, and flushing.
NEW QUESTION # 69
A client is receiving IV morphine 2 days after colorectal surgery. Which of the following observations indicate that he may be becoming drug dependent?
- A. He is euphoric for about an hour after each injection.
- B. He asks for pain medication although his blood pressure and pulse rate are normal.
- C. The client requests pain medicine every 4 hours.
- D. He is asleep 30 minutes after receiving the IV morphine.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) Frequent requests for pain medication do not necessarily indicate drug dependence after complex surgeries such as colorectal surgery. (B) Sleeping after receiving IV morphine is not an unexpected effect because the pain is relieved. (C) A person may be in pain even with normal vital signs. (D) A subtle sign of drug dependency is the tendency for the person to appear more euphoric than relieved of pain.
NEW QUESTION # 70
The nurse provides a male client with diet teaching so that he can help prevent constipation in the future.
Which food choices indicate that this teaching has been understood?
- A. Cooked oatmeal and grapefruit half
- B. Pancakes and syrup
- C. Bagel with cream cheese
- D. Omelette and hash browns
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Eggs and hash browns do not provide much fiber and bulk, so they do not effectively prevent constipation.
(B) Pancakes and syrup also have little fiber and bulk, so they do not effectively prevent constipation. (C) Bagel and cream cheese do not provide intestinal bulk. (D) A combination of oatmeal and fresh fruit will provide fiber and intestinal bulk.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A physician's order reads: 0.25 normal saline at 50 mL/hr until discontinued. The nurse is using a microdrip tubing set. How many drops per minute should the nurse administer?
- A. 50 gtt/min
- B. 5 gtt/min
- C. 1 gtt/min
- D. 100 gtt/min
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This answer is a miscalculation. (B) This answer is a miscalculation. (C)50 gtt/min. (D) This answer is a miscalculation.
NEW QUESTION # 72
A 71-year-old client fell and injured her left leg while cooking in the kitchen. Her husband calls the ambulance, and she is taken to the emergency department at a local hospital. X-ray reports confirm that she has an intertrochanteric fracture of the left femur. Her left leg will require skeletal traction initially and then surgery. The nurse knows that this type of traction will be used:
- A. By inserting pins to provide steady pull on the bone
- B. Intermittently to place a pull over the pelvis and lower spine
- C. With weights at both ends of the bed to maintain pull on the upper extremity
- D. To suspend the leg in a sling without pull on the extremity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Skeletal traction is the application of traction directly to bone with the use of pins and wires or tongs for the purpose of providing a strong, steady, continuous longitudinal pull on the bone. It is indicated for preoperative immobilization and positioning of hip and femur fractures. (B) A type of skeletal traction (balanced suspension with a Thomas splint and Pearson attachment) uses a sling to support the extremity, but it also uses weights to provide a strong, steady continuouspull on the extremity. A sling is used instead of pins.
(C) Pelvic traction provides an intermittent pull over the pelvis and bone, whereas skeletal traction is continuous. Pelvic traction does not use pins. (D) Skeletal traction uses weights at the end of the bed to provide a continuous pull on long bones. Weights are not applied to both ends of the bed.
NEW QUESTION # 73
A female client was recently diagnosed with gastric cancer. She entered the hospital and had a total gastrectomy with esophagojejunostomy. Her postoperative recovery was uneventful. On conducting discharge teaching, the nurse discusses changes in bodily function and lifestyle changes with the client. In order to prevent pernicious anemia, the nurse stresses that the client must:
- A. Receive monthly blood transfusions
- B. Increase the amount of iron in her diet
- C. Eat small quantities several times daily until she is able to tolerate food in moderate portions
- D. Understand the need for Vitamin B12 replacement therapy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Monthly blood transfusions are not indicated postgastrectomy. (B) Increasing iron in the client's diet may cause irritation and will not alleviate pernicious anemia. (C) It may be necessary that the client eat small meals several times per day, but this measure has no relevance to prevention of pernicious anemia. (D) Pernicious anemia is caused by lack of Vitamin B12, and replacement therapy will be necessary because the client's stomach has been removed.
NEW QUESTION # 74
MgSO4 is ordered IV following the established protocol for a client with severe PIH. The anticipated effects of this therapy are anticonvulsant and:
- A. Hypertensive
- B. Vasoconstrictive
- C. Vasodilative
- D. Antiemetic
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH. However, we would not want to increase the vasoconstriction that is already present. This would make the symptoms more severe. (B) An anticon- vulsant effect and vasodilation are the desired outcomes when administering this drug. (C) An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH; however, hypertensive drugs would increase the blood pressure even more. (D) An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH. MgSO4is not classified as an antiemetic. Antiemetics are not indicated for PIH treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 75
On the third postpartum day, the nurse would expect the lochia to be:
- A. Scant
- B. Serosa
- C. Alba
- D. Rubra
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) This discharge occurs from delivery through the 3rd day. There is dark red blood, placental debris, and clots. (B) This discharge occurs from days 4-10. The lochia is brownish, serous, and thin. (C) This discharge occurs from day 10 through the 6thweek. The lochia is yellowish white. (D) This is not a classification of lochia but relates to the amount of discharge.
NEW QUESTION # 76
When inspecting a cardiovascular client, the nurse notes that he needs to sit upright to breathe. This behavior is most indicative of:
- A. Congestive heart failure
- B. Pericarditis
- C. Angina
- D. Anxiety
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Pericarditis can cause dyspnea but primarily causes chest pain. (B) Anxiety can cause dyspnea resulting in SOB, yet it is not typically influenced by degree of head elevation. (C) The inability to oxygenate well without being upright is most indicative of congestive heart failure, due to alveolar drowning. (D) Angina causes primarily chest pain; any SOB associated with angina is not influenced by body position.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A client is experiencing mucosal cell damage secondary to chemotherapy. Because of mucosal ulcers, eating has become increasingly uncomfortable for her. Which of the following interventions would be most effective in getting her to eat?
- A. A bland, moist, soft diet
- B. Cleaning the mouth carefully with lemon glycerin swabs and milk of magnesia before meals
- C. Local anesthetics or mouth washes applied to ulcers 30 minutes prior to meals
- D. Staying with the client and providing distraction during meals
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Local anesthetics do temporarily relieve the pain but leave an unpleasant taste and numb feeling that are not conductive to eating. (B) Such a diet is less irritating to the damaged mucosa and is easier for the child to tolerate. (C) This intervention is helpful if the child has only anorexia. It does not work if the type and texture of the food increase oral discomfort. (D) Lemon glycerin swabs and milk of magnesia dry the oral mucosa and should be avoided.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A schizophrenic client who is experiencing thoughts of having special powers states that "I am a messenger from another planet and can rule the earth." The nurse assesses this behavior as:
- A. Delusions of grandeur
- B. Ideas of reference
- C. Thought broadcasting
- D. Delusions of persecution
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Clients experiencing ideas of reference believe that information from the environment (e.g., the television) is referring to them. (B) Clients experiencing delusions of persecution believe that others in the environment are plotting against them. (C) Clients experiencing thought broadcasting perceive that others can hear their thoughts. (D) Clients experiencing delusions of grandeur think that they are omnipotent and have superhuman powers.
NEW QUESTION # 79
A client who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa reluctantly agrees to eat all prescribed meals. The most important intervention in monitoring her dietary compliance would be to:
- A. Observe behavior for 1-2 hours after meals to prevent vomiting
- B. Praise her for eating everything
- C. Allow her privacy at mealtimes
- D. Encourage her to eat in moderation, choose foods that she likes, and avoid foods that she dislikes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation:
(A) Eating alone is not recommended for anorexic clients because they tend to hoard food instead of eating it.
(B) The client should be praised for whatever she eats, which is usually a small portion or percentage of what is served. Praise should not be withheld until she eats everything. (C) The client should be observed eye-to-eye for at least 1 hour following meals to prevent discarding food stashed in her clothing at mealtime or engaging in selfinduced vomiting. (D) If offered these choices, the client would choose low-caloric foods, not a nutritious diet.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following risk factors associated with breast cancer would a nurse consider most significant in a client's history?
- A. Menarche after age 13
- B. Early menopause
- C. Maternal family history of breast cancer
- D. Nulliparity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Women who begin menarche late (after 13 years old) have a lower risk of developing breast cancer than women who have begun earlier. Average age for menarche is 12.5 years. (B) Women who have never been pregnant have an increased risk for breast cancer, but a positive family history poses an even greater risk. (C) A positive family history puts a woman at an increased risk of developing breast cancer. It is recommended that mammography screening begin 5 years before the age at which an immediate female relative was diagnosed with breast cancer. (D) Early menopause decreases the risk of developing breast cancer.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A client with severe PIH receiving MgSO4 is placed in a quiet, darkened room. The nurse bases this action on the following understanding:
- A. Noise or bright lights may precipitate a convulsion.
- B. The client is restless.
- C. External stimuli are annoying to the client with PIH.
- D. The elevated blood pressure causes photophobia.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) The client may be anxious and hyperresponsive to stimuli but not necessarily restless. (B) This is not a physiological response to an elevated blood pressure in PIH. (C) The nurse must know the nursing measures that decrease the potential for convulsions. A quiet, darkened room decreases stimuli and promotes rest. (D) External stimuli might induce a convulsion but are not annoying to the client with PIH.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A client is in early labor. Her fetus is in a left occipitoanterior (LOA) position; fetal heart sounds are best auscultated just:
- A. Below the umbilicus toward left side of mother's abdomen
- B. At the umbilicus
- C. Above the umbilicus to the left side of mother's abdomen
- D. Below the umbilicus toward right side of mother's abdomen
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) LOA identifies a fetus whose back is on its mother's left side, whose head is the presenting part, and whose back is toward its mother's anterior. It is easiest to auscultate fetal heart tones (FHTs) through the fetus's back. (B) The identified fetus's back is on its mother's left side, not right side. It is easiest to auscultate FHTs through the fetus's back. (C) In an LOA position, the fetus's head is presenting with the back to the left anterior side of the mother. The umbilicus is too high of a landmark for auscultating the fetus's heart rate through its back. (D) This is the correct auscultation point for a fetus in the left sacroanterior position, where the sacrum is presenting, not LOA.
NEW QUESTION # 83
A client hospitalized with a medical diagnosis of adjustment disorder versus personality disorder states, "Nobody cares about the clients." The nurse's most effective response would be:
- A. "You will feel differently about us in a few days."
- B. "How can you say that I don't care? We just met."
- C. "What makes you think the nurses don't care?"
- D. "You seem angry. Tell me more about how you feel."
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) This statement is a defensive response that places the nurse in a vulnerable countertransference position, and at the same time, fails to challenge the client's "splitting" behavior. (B) This statement is a defensive response by the nurse. In addition, this type of nontherapeutic statement requests that the client explain the reasons for her behavior, a difficult task for an individual with limited insight. (C) This statement is a nontherapeutic response that both ignores the intensity of the client's emotions and the dynamics underlying "splitting" behavior. (D) By simultaneously acknowledging the client's emotional intensity and gently challenging her "splitting" behavior, the nurse addresses the client's current distortions and prepares for further interventions with angry or ambivalent feelings.
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following nursing orders should be included in the plan of care for a client with hepatitis C?
- A. Total bed rest should be maintained until the client is asymptomatic.
- B. The nurse should use universal precautions when obtaining blood samples.
- C. The nurse should administer an alcohol backrub at bedtime.
- D. The client should be instructed to maintain a low semi-Fowler position when eating meals.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The source of infection with hepatitis C is contaminated blood products. (B) Modified bed rest should be maintained while the client is symptomatic. Routine activities can be slowly resumed once the client is asymptomatic. (C) Nausea and vomiting occur frequently with hepatitis C. A high Fowler position may decrease the tendency to vomit. (D) The buildup of bilirubin in the client's skin may cause pruritus. Alcohol is a drying agent.
NEW QUESTION # 85
A male client is scheduled for a liver biopsy. In preparing him for this test, the nurse should:
- A. Practice with him so he will be able to hold his breath for 1 minute
- B. Explain that his vital signs will be checked frequently after the test
- C. Explain that he will be receiving a laxative to prevent a distended bowel from applying pressure on the liver
- D. Explain that he will be kept NPO for 24 hours before the exam
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) There is no NPO restriction prior to a liver biopsy. (B) The client would need to hold his breath for 5-10 seconds. (C) There is no pretest laxative given. (D) Following the test, the client is watched for hemorrhage and shock.
NEW QUESTION # 86
......
NCLEX-RN exam is a critical step in the process of becoming a licensed RN in the United States. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to ensure that all RNs possess the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective care to patients. Students should take advantage of nursing program resources and test preparation materials to ensure that they are fully prepared to pass the exam and begin their careers as RNs.
Actual NCLEX-RN Exam Recently Updated Questions with Free Demo: https://www.updatedumps.com/NCLEX/NCLEX-RN-updated-exam-dumps.html
Free NCLEX NCLEX-RN Exam Questions: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1x1oXSkpFjouRvgDD-NVuaF4pckvNP-GQ