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NEW QUESTION # 13
A software company is developing an application in which data must be encrypted with a cipher that requires the following:
* Initialization vector
* Low latency
* Suitable for streaming
Which of the following ciphers should the company use?
- A. Cipher block chaining message authentication code
- B. Cipher block chaining
- C. Cipher feedback
- D. Electronic codebook
Answer: C
Explanation:
B) Cipher block chaining message authentication code (CBC-MAC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides both encryption and authentication. CBC-MAC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt the plaintext and generate a MAC value that is appended to the ciphertext. CBC-MAC has high latency because it requires the entire message to be processed before generating the MAC value. CBC-MAC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.
C) Cipher block chaining (CBC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. CBC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext by XORing it with the previous ciphertext block. CBC has high latency because it requires a full block of plaintext before encryption. CBC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.
D) Electronic codebook (ECB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. ECB uses a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext independently. ECB has low latency because it can encrypt each block of plaintext as soon as it arrives. However, ECB is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization. Moreover, ECB is insecure because it does not use an IV and produces identical ciphertext blocks for identical plaintext blocks.
Explanation:
Cipher feedback (CFB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that allows them to encrypt streaming data. CFB uses an initialization vector (IV) and a block cipher to generate a keystream that is XORed with the plaintext to produce the ciphertext. CFB has low latency because it can encrypt each byte or bit of plaintext as soon as it arrives, without waiting for a full block. CFB is suitable for streaming data because it does not require padding or block synchronization.
NEW QUESTION # 14
A penetration tester is given an assignment lo gain physical access to a secure facility with perimeter cameras.
The secure facility does not accept visitors and entry is available only through a door protected by an RFID key and a guard stationed inside the door.
Which of the following would be BEST for the penetration tester to attempt?
- A. Look for an open window that can be used to gain unauthorized entry into the facility
- B. Tailgate into the facility with an employee who has a valid RFID badge to enter
- C. Duplicate an employees RFID badge and use an IR camera to see when the guard leaves the post
- D. Gam entry into the building by posing as a contractor who is performing routine building maintenance
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 15
A security architect works for a manufacturing organization that has many different branch offices. The architect is looking for a way to reduce traffic and ensure the branch offices receive the latest copy of revoked certificates issued by the CA at the organization's headquarters location. The solution must also have the lowest power requirement on the CA.
Which of the following is the BEST solution?
- A. Send the new CRLs by using GPO.
- B. Use Delta CRLs at the branches.
- C. Configure clients to use OCSP.
- D. Deploy an RA on each branch office.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference:
OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) is a protocol that allows clients to check the revocation status of certificates in real time by querying an OCSP responder server. This would enable the organization to determine whether it is vulnerable to the active campaign utilizing a specific vulnerability, as it would show if any certificates have been compromised or revoked. Deploying an RA (registration authority) on each branch office may not help with checking the revocation status of certificates, as an RA is responsible for verifying the identity of certificate applicants, not issuing or revoking certificates. Using Delta CRLs (certificate revocation lists) at the branches may not provide timely or accurate information on certificate revocation status, as CRLs are updated periodically and may not reflect the latest changes. Implementing an inbound BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) prefix list may not help with checking the revocation status of certificates, as BGP is a protocol for routing network traffic between autonomous systems, not verifying certificates. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ocsp https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 16
A security engineer has been informed by the firewall team that a specific Windows workstation is part of a command-and-control network. The only information the security engineer is receiving is that the traffic is occurring on a non-standard port (TCP 40322). Which of the following commands should the security engineer use FIRST to find the malicious process?
- A. traceroute
- B. ipconfig
- C. netstar
- D. tasklist
- E. tcpdump
Answer: C
Explanation:
Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:
netstat -ano | findstr :40322
This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat
https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/
NEW QUESTION # 17
A company is implementing SSL inspection. During the next six months, multiple web applications that will be separated out with subdomains will be deployed.
Which of the following will allow the inspection of the data without multiple certificate deployments?
- A. Implement certificate pinning.
- B. Include all available cipher suites.
- C. Use a third-party C
- D. Create a wildcard certificate.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 18
A security analyst needs to recommend a remediation to the following threat:
Which of the following actions should the security analyst propose to prevent this successful exploitation?
- A. Install a host-based firewall.
- B. Patch the system.
- C. Enable TLS 1.2.
- D. Update the antivirus.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 19
A company suspects a web server may have been infiltrated by a rival corporation. The security engineer reviews the web server logs and finds the following:
The security engineer looks at the code with a developer, and they determine the log entry is created when the following line is run:
Which of the following is an appropriate security control the company should implement?
- A. Restrict directory permission to read-only access.
- B. Separate the items in the system call to prevent command injection.
- C. Use server-side processing to avoid XSS vulnerabilities in path input.
- D. Parameterize a query in the path variable to prevent SQL injection.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 20
A financial services company wants to migrate its email services from on-premises servers to a cloud-based email solution. The Chief information Security Officer (CISO) must brief board of directors on the potential security concerns related to this migration. The board is concerned about the following.
* Transactions being required by unauthorized individual
* Complete discretion regarding client names, account numbers, and investment information.
* Malicious attacker using email to distribute malware and ransom ware.
* Exfiltration of sensitivity company information.
The cloud-based email solution will provide an6-malware, reputation-based scanning, signature-based scanning, and sandboxing. Which of the following is the BEST option to resolve the board's concerns for this email migration?
- A. Endpoint detection response
- B. SSL VPN
- C. Application whitelisting
- D. Data loss prevention
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board's concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3245746/what-is-dlp-data-loss-prevention-and-how-does-it-work.html
NEW QUESTION # 21
An organization developed a social media application that is used by customers in multiple remote geographic locations around the world. The organization's headquarters and only datacenter are located in New York City. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to ensure the following requirements are met for the social media application:
Low latency for all mobile users to improve the users' experience
SSL offloading to improve web server performance
Protection against DoS and DDoS attacks
High availability
Which of the following should the organization implement to BEST ensure all requirements are met?
- A. A CDN with the origin set to its datacenter
- B. A cache server farm in its datacenter
- C. Dual gigabit-speed Internet connections with managed DDoS prevention
- D. A load-balanced group of reverse proxy servers with SSL acceleration
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following technologies should the company deploy to meet its security objectives? (Select TWO)_
- A. NAC
- B. NIDS
- C. Reverse proxy
- D. NGFW
- E. WAF
- F. Bastion host
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 23
A security engineer has implemented an internal user access review tool so service teams can baseline user accounts and group memberships. The tool is functional and popular among its initial set of onboarded teams. However, the tool has not been built to cater to a broader set of internal teams yet. The engineer has sought feedback from internal stakeholders, and a list of summarized requirements is as follows:
The tool needs to be responsive so service teams can query it, and
then perform an automated response action.
The tool needs to be resilient to outages so service teams can perform
the user access review at any point in time and meet their own SLAs.
The tool will become the system-of-record for approval, reapproval,
and removal life cycles of group memberships and must allow for data
retrieval after failure.
Which of the following need specific attention to meet the requirements listed above? (Choose three.)
- A. Usability
- B. Maintainability
- C. Recoverability
- D. Latency
- E. Scalability
- F. Availability
Answer: C,D,F
NEW QUESTION # 24
A networking team was asked to provide secure remote access to all company employees. The team decided to use client-to-site VPN as a solution. During a discussion, the Chief Information Security Officer raised a security concern and asked the networking team to route the Internet traffic of remote users through the main office infrastructure. Doing this would prevent remote users from accessing the Internet through their local networks while connected to the VPN.
Which of the following solutions does this describe?
- A. Split tunneling
- B. Asymmetric routing
- C. SSH tunneling
- D. Full tunneling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The concern is users operating in a spit tunnel config which is what is being described. Using a Full Tunnel would route traffic from all applications through a single tunnel.
https://cybernews.com/what-is-vpn/split-tunneling/
NEW QUESTION # 25
A company's SOC has received threat intelligence about an active campaign utilizing a specific vulnerability. The company would like to determine whether it is vulnerable to this active campaign.
Which of the following should the company use to make this determination?
- A. A system penetration test
- B. Threat hunting
- C. The Cyber Kill Chain
- D. Log analysis within the SIEM tool
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 26
An analyst execute a vulnerability scan against an internet-facing DNS server and receives the following report:
Which of the following tools should the analyst use FIRST to validate the most critical vulnerability?
- A. Port scanner
- B. Exploitation framework
- C. Account enumerator
- D. Password cracker
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 27
A security manager wants to transition the organization to a zero trust architecture. To meet this requirement, the security manager has instructed administrators to remove trusted zones, role-based access, and one-time authentication. Which of the following will need to be implemented to achieve this objective? (Select THREE).
- A. Continuous validation
- B. Continuous integration
- C. Policy automation
- D. VPN
- E. laas
- F. PKI
- G. Firewall
- H. Least privilege
Answer: A,C,H
Explanation:
Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.
A) Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.
C) Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.
F) Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.
B) VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
D) PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
E) Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
G) Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
H) IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following terms refers to the delivery of encryption keys to a CASB or a third-party entity?
- A. Key sharing
- B. Key distribution
- C. Key recovery
- D. Key escrow
Answer: B
Explanation:
Key Escrow is the process to store the key. Totally use key Escrow with CASB and third party but the deliver system is Key Distribution. In short escrow is method of storing and distribution is method of delivery.
https://csrc.nist.gov/glossary/term/key_distribution
https://jumpcloud.com/blog/key-escrow
NEW QUESTION # 29
A security administrator is concerned about employees connecting their personal devices to the company network. Doing so is against company policy.
The network does not have a NAC solution.
The company uses a GPO that disables the firewall on all company-owned devices while they are connected to the internal network.
Additionally, all company-owned devices implement a standard naming convention that uses the device's serial number.
The security administrator wants to identify active personal devices and write a custom script to disconnect them from the network.
Which of the following should the script use to BEST accomplish this task?
- A. AD authentication logs
- B. Switch and router ARP tables
- C. DHCP logs
- D. RADIUS logs
- E. Recursive DNS logs
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 30
A security consultant needs to protect a network of electrical relays that are used for monitoring and controlling the energy used in a manufacturing facility.
Which of the following systems should the consultant review before making a recommendation?
- A. ASIC
- B. CAN
- C. SCADA
- D. FPGA
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 31
An organization is running its e-commerce site in the cloud. The capacity is sufficient to meet the organization's needs throughout most of the year, except during the holidays when the organization plans to introduce a new line of products and expects an increase in traffic. The organization is not sure how well its products will be received. To address this issue, the organization needs to ensure that:
* System capacity is optimized.
* Cost is reduced.
Which of the following should be implemented to address these requirements? (Select TWO).
- A. Microsegmentation
- B. Containerization
- C. CDN
- D. Load balancer
- E. WAF
- F. Autoscaling
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
Explanation
Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers or instances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage.
References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 406-407 and 410]
NEW QUESTION # 32
An organization requires a legacy system to incorporate reference data into a new system. The organization anticipates the legacy system will remain in operation for the next 18 to 24 months. Additionally, the legacy system has multiple critical vulnerabilities with no patches available to resolve them. Which of the following is the BEST design option to optimize security?
- A. Deploy the legacy application on an air-gapped system.
- B. Place the new system and legacy system on separate VLANs
- C. Limit access to the system using a jump box.
- D. Implement MFA to access the legacy system.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 33
The Chief information Officer (CIO) asks the system administrator to improve email security at the company based on the following requirements:
* Transaction being requested by unauthorized individuals.
* Complete discretion regarding client names, account numbers, and investment information.
* Malicious attackers using email to malware and ransomeware.
* Exfiltration of sensitive company information.
The cloud-based email solution will provide anti-malware reputation-based scanning, signature-based scanning, and sandboxing. Which of the following is the BEST option to resolve the boar's concerns for this email migration?
- A. Endpoint detection response
- B. SSL VPN
- C. Application whitelisting
- D. Data loss prevention
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board's concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data.
DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide ,
https://www.csoonline.com/article/3245746/what-is-dlp-data-loss-prevention-and-how-does-it-work.html
NEW QUESTION # 34
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