Pass CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 exam [Mar 03, 2024] Updated 404 Questions
CompTIA CV0-003 Actual Questions and 100% Cover Real Exam Questions
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following would be considered use cases for Object-Based Storage? (Select two.)
- A. Transactional database
- B. Data archival solution
- C. Cloud-based storage
- D. Enterprise email services
- E. Web server platform
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 88
A company is utilizing a private cloud solution that is hosted within its datacenter. The company wants to launch a new business application, which requires the resources below:
The current private cloud has 30 vCPUs and 512GB RAM available. The company is looking for a quick solution to launch this application, with expected maximum sessions to be close to 24,000 at launch and an average of approximately 5,000 sessions.
Which of the following solutions would help the company accommodate the new workload in the SHORTEST amount of time and with the maximum financial benefits?
- A. Set up cloud bursting for the additional resources
- B. Configure auto-scaling within the private cloud
- C. Add more capacity to the private cloud
- D. Migrate all workloads to a public cloud provider
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 89
In an existing IaaS instance, it is required to deploy a single application that has different versions.
Which of the following should be recommended to meet this requirement?
- A. Deploy using containers
- B. Install a Type 2 hypervisor
- C. Enable SR-IOV on the host
- D. Create snapshots
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 90
A cloud administrator is performing automated deployment of cloud infrastructure for clients. The administrator notices discrepancies from the baseline in the configuration of infrastructure that was deployed to a new client. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
- A. The deployment was done by a different cloud administrator.
- B. The deployment template was modified.
- C. The deployment user account changed
- D. The deployment was done to a different resource group.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A deployment template is a file that defines the resources and configurations that are required to deploy a cloud solution1. A deployment template can be used to automate the deployment of cloud infrastructure for clients, ensuring consistency and efficiency2. However, if the deployment template was modified, either intentionally or accidentally, it could cause discrepancies from the baseline in the configuration of infrastructure that was deployed to a new client. For example, the template could have different parameters, values, or dependencies that affect the outcome of the deployment3. Therefore, the most likely cause of the issue is that the deployment template was modified.
References:
1: What is a template? - Azure Resource Manager | Microsoft Docs3
2: Automate cloud deployments with Azure Resource Manager templates - Learn | Microsoft Docs3
3: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, deploy and test a cloud solution
NEW QUESTION # 91
A cloud administrator is designing a multiregion network within an IaaS provider. The business requirements for configuring the network are as follows:
Use private networking in and between the multisites for data replication.
Use low latency to avoid performance issues.
Which of the following solutions should the network administrator use within the IaaS provider to connect multiregions?
- A. Gateways
- B. VPN
- C. Hub and spoke
- D. Peering
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following is the BEST example of IaaS?
- A. Hardware is owned by the user, and managed and hosted by the third party.
- B. Hardware and software is owned, hosted, and managed by the third party.
- C. Hardware is owned, hosted, and managed by a third party.
- D. Hardware is owned and managed by the user and hosted by a third party.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 93
A systems administrator is informed that a database server containing PHI and PII is unencrypted. The environment does not support VM encryption, nor does it have a key management system. The server needs to be able to be rebooted for patching without manual intervention.
Which of the following will BEST resolve this issue?
- A. Ensure all database queries are encrypted
- B. Create an IPSec tunnel between the database server and its clients
- C. Enable OS encryption
- D. Enable volume encryption on the storage
- E. Enable protocol encryption between the storage and the hypervisor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Volume encryption is a type of encryption that protects data at the storage level by encrypting an entire disk or partition. Volume encryption can provide strong security for data at rest, as it prevents unauthorized access to the data even if the storage device is lost, stolen, or compromised. Volume encryption can also support automatic booting without manual intervention, as it can use a pre-boot authentication mechanism that does not require user input. Enabling volume encryption on the storage is the best way to resolve the issue of having an unencrypted database server containing PHI and PII, as it can protect the sensitive data without relying on VM encryption or a key management system. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7
NEW QUESTION # 94
A cloud administrator is upgrading a cloud environment and needs to update the automation script to use a new feature from the cloud provider. After executing the script, the deployment fails. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
- A. Account permissions
- B. Location changes
- C. Network failure
- D. API incompatibility
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 95
A company has decided to scale its e-commerce application from its corporate datacenter to a commercial cloud provider to meet an anticipated increase in demand during an upcoming holiday.
The majority of the application load takes place on the application server under normal conditions. For this reason, the company decides to deploy additional application servers into a commercial cloud provider using the on-premises orchestration engine that installs and configures common software and network configurations.
The remote computing environment is connected to the on-premises datacenter via a site-to-site IPSec tunnel.
The external DNS provider has been configured to use weighted round-robin routing to load balance connections from the Internet.
During testing, the company discovers that only 20% of connections completed successfully.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the network architecture and supporting documents and fulfill these requirements:
Part 1:
Analyze the configuration of the following components: DNS, Firewall 1, Firewall 2, Router 1, Router 2, VPN and Orchestrator Server.
Identify the problematic device(s).
Part 2:
Identify the correct options to provide adequate configuration for hybrid cloud architecture.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Part 1:
Cloud Hybrid Network Diagram
Part 2:
Only select a maximum of TWO options from the multiple choice question
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation
B. Update the PSK (Pre-shared key in Router2)
E. Change the Address Space on Router2
NEW QUESTION # 96
A company wants to check its infrastructure and application for security issues regularly. Which of the following should the company implement?
- A. Performance testing
- B. Regression testing
- C. Penetration testing
- D. Vulnerability testing
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 97
The QA team is testing a newly implemented clinical trial management (CTM) SaaS application that uses a business intelligence application for reporting. The UAT users were instructed to use HTTP and HTTPS.
Refer to the application dataflow:
1A - The end user accesses the application through a web browser to enter and view clinical data.
2A - The CTM application server reads/writes data to/from the database server.
1B - The end user accesses the application through a web browser to run reports on clinical data.
2B - The CTM application server makes a SOAP call on a non-privileged port to the BI application server.
3B - The BI application server gets the data from the database server and presents it to the CTM application server.
When
UAT users try to access the application using https://ctm.app.com or http://ctm.app.com, they get a message stating: "Browser cannot display the webpage." The QA team has raised a ticket to troubleshoot the issue.
INSTRUCTIONS
You are a cloud engineer who is tasked with reviewing the firewall rules as well as virtual network settings.
You should ensure the firewall rules are allowing only the traffic based on the dataflow.
You have already verified the external DNS resolution and NAT are working.
Verify and appropriately configure the VLAN assignments and ACLs. Drag and drop the appropriate VLANs to each tier from the VLAN Tags table. Click on each Firewall to change ACLs as needed.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation
On firewall 3, change the DENY 0.0.0.0 entry to rule 3 not rule 1.
NEW QUESTION # 98
A company just successfully completed a DR test and is ready to shut down its DR site and resume normal operations.
Which of the following actions should the cloud administrator take FIRST?
- A. Perform a failback
- B. Configure the network
- C. Initiate a failover
- D. Restore backups
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A failback is a process of restoring or returning a system or service to its original state or location after a failure or disaster recovery event. Performing a failback is the first action that a cloud administrator should take after successfully completing a DR test and being ready to shut down its DR site and resume normal operations, as it can ensure that all data and configurations are synchronized and consistent between the primary site and the DR site before switching back to the primary site. Performing a failback can also help minimize downtime or disruption, as it can verify that all systems or services are functioning properly before resuming normal operations.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5
NEW QUESTION # 99
A systems administrator needs to configure a set of policies to protect the data to comply with mandatory regulations.
Which of the following should the administrator implement to ensure DLP efficiently prevents the exposure of sensitive data in a cloud environment?
- A. Versioning
- B. Integrity
- C. Segmentation
- D. Classification
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://cloud.google.com/dlp/docs
NEW QUESTION # 100
A customer recently provisioned a new server on the IaaS. The IP address assigned from the pool resolves to another hostname. Some user traffic is being dumped or is causing slowness because of this issue. Which of the following maintenance activities does the provider need to perform to prevent this issue?
- A. Run a script to remove stale DNS entries.
- B. Initiate resource reclamation.
- C. Use cloud provider tools to remove orphaned resources.
- D. Update outdated security firewall configurations.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 101
A systems administrator has been notified of possible illegal activities taking place on the network and has been directed to ensure any relevant emails are preserved for court use.
Which of the following is this MOST likely an example of?
- A. Email archiving
- B. Version control
- C. Legal hold
- D. File integrity monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Legal hold.
A legal hold is a process that organizations use to preserve relevant electronic information when they anticipate litigation or have an active e-discovery request. A legal hold requires that certain email messages be retained and unaltered until they are no longer required for court use. Legal hold requirements apply both to the content of messages as well as the metadata which can provide proof of delivery and other critical non-repudiation information12.
Email archiving is a process that organizations use to store email messages for long-term retention, compliance, and backup purposes. Email archiving does not necessarily imply that the email messages are preserved for legal purposes, although some email archiving solutions may offer legal hold capabilities1.
File integrity monitoring is a process that security professionals use to detect unauthorized or malicious changes to files and directories on a system. File integrity monitoring helps to protect the system from malware, data breaches, and configuration errors. File integrity monitoring does not apply to email messages or legal hold.
NEW QUESTION # 102
A software development manager is looking for a solution that will allow a team of developers to work in isolated environments that can be spun up and torn down quickly.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate solution?
- A. Containers
- B. Software-defined storage
- C. File subscriptions
- D. Ballooning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Containers are isolated environments that can run applications and their dependencies without interfering with other processes or systems. Containers are lightweight, portable, and scalable, which makes them ideal for development and testing purposes. Containers can be spun up and torn down quickly using tools such as Docker, Kubernetes, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 103
Users are experiencing slow response times from an intranet website that is hosted on a cloud platform. There is a site-to-site VPN connection to the cloud provider over a link of 100Mbps.
Which of the following solutions will resolve the issue the FASTEST?
- A. Change the connection to point-to-site VPN.
- B. Order a direct link to the provider.
- C. Enable quality of service.
- D. Upgrade the link to 200Mbps.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 104
A company is switching from one cloud provider to another and needs to complete the migration as quickly as possible.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration to ensure a seamless migration?
- A. Network utilization
- B. The I/O of the storage
- C. The cost of the environment
- D. Feature compatibility
Answer: D
Explanation:
Feature compatibility is the degree to which the features or functionalities of a system or application are compatible or interoperable with another system or application. Feature compatibility is the most important consideration to ensure a seamless migration from one cloud provider to another, as it can affect the performance, reliability, and security of the system or application in the new cloud environment. Feature compatibility can also help complete the migration as quickly as possible, as it can reduce or eliminate the need for reconfiguration, customization, or testing of the system or application after the migration. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 18, section 3.5
NEW QUESTION # 105
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